What counts as an anal orgasm?

So, because some people keep fighting me over this. A topic dedicated to this question.

If you look up “anal orgasm” in google you get results saying that when an orgasm happens, purely through stimulation of the anus and nerveendings inside it, it’s called an anal orgasm.

From the moment something outside is stimulated, being the clitoris, the penis or the pussy, there is no talk about anal orgasm anymore.

The reason why an anal orgasm is considered the holy grail amoungst anal lovers, is exactly thát.

Like so many, my girlfriend and I are trying to get her to achieve a true anal orgasm. A week ago it happened for the first time with a dildo in her asshole. Took some time for her so slowly climb to the top. Meanwhile I needed to give her consistant stimulation by fucking her asshole with long strokes, for a long time.

Before that true anal orgasm happened, she only orgasmed with clit stimulation. Sometimes she would stop it 30 seconds before cumming and let the feeling take over. Still she needed to stimulate her clit till right before.

In my book this is a clitoral orgasm, enhanced by anal penetration. Take away the anal penetration, and she would orgasm. Take away the clitplay, and she will not orgasm.

So the key factor here is obviously the clitplay.

This above is my take on the matter. Feel free to tell me the way you see it and why. Or put it this way: can you prove that what I read about it is wrong ?

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I believe that a true anal orgasm excludes clitoral stimulation. If, for example, I had oral sex with my wife (fucked her in the mouth), and at that time she stimulated her clitoris and came from this, then I could hardly say that my wife received an oral orgasm. When we have sex, my wife uses a vibrator on her clitoris 99% of the time. We play this game with her - that she can cum from clitoral stimulation, if only the penis is in her ass. But twice she came from anal sex without touching the clitoris. This happened in those cases when I came back from my shift, we didn’t see each other for a month, and we really missed each other. Usually, she doesn’t start using a vibrator on her clitoris immediately when I start fucking her, but only after 5 minutes. So, in those two cases, I myself offered her a vibrator a few minutes after the start of our games, but she refused. She said that she felt so aroused that she could cum without touching her clitoris. And so it happened. I believe that this was not a simulation, we have been honest with each other in bed for a long time.
I am still on shift and will only arrive home on September 6th. I hope to see my wife experience her third anal orgasm!)))

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But for me it is not at all critical whether my wife cums from clitoral stimulation or without it. Still, the main pleasure for me remains the fact that I fuck her in the ass, and she always cums two or three times in the process!

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For some time, the anal orgasm was like the holy grail for me. I was lucky that my clitoras was finely tuned to give me delightful orgasms whether by my boyfriend’s amazing tongue or my favourite clitoral stimulator! We tried many different positions, and items in my ass, without success. Posts in the previous forum advised me to desist from clitoral stimulation. I was initially sceptical but decided to listen to those with a lot more experience and knowledge than me. It didn’t happen immediately then suddenly Dale hit the spot and gave me an orgasm unlike anything I had ever experienced before. Since then I’ve achieved anal orgasms and have not returned to my clitoras.

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So you agree that, to talk about an anal orgasm, there is no clit stimulation.

Noted.

It seemed to help me achieve anal orgasms. I’d love to be able to achieve both like my friend Karen.

It seems there’s some semantic confusion here.

I think the women especially speak of an anal orgasm that feels a certain way, that needs anal stimulation and sometimes other stimulation as well to achieve, that is a fully body orgasm and distinct from an orgasm achieved through clitoral or vaginal stimulation.

Then there’s an orgasm that is achieved solely through anal stimulation to the exclusion of other stimulation. From what I know, this one feels like the one described above, but the “rules” for it are different for it to “count”.

Does that sound about right to all involved? If we call the latter one anal-exclusive orgasm (though from Fly_Agaric’s description I would argue that some mental stimulation is also part of it, as is the case with all sex) and the former one an anal-inclusive orgasm whenever the distinction is important, I think it might alleviate some confusion.

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Seems to me you are the one pulling semantics into this very clear situation.

If anything is stilmulated, besides the anus, all the anus does is enhance the feeling. For example, back in the past my girlfriend never orgasmed during vaginal sex. Not even with clitoral stimulation. It was only when she started having anal sex, combined with clitplay, that she orgasmed.

Still, those weren’t anal orgasms. The clitplay was nesseccary.

I’m bringing semantics into it since people here use the term in two different ways. There’s two options then: You can try to say one way is right, the other is wrong, or you can figure out what the distinction is in the uses and find appropriate terms to distinguish the two and avoid confusion. I like the latter, but you do you.

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I agree and I think the best way to avoid confusion is to say:

“To talk about an anal orgasm, only the asshole gets stimulation”.

Seems very simple and straight foreward. Not confusing at all. :smiley:

I would say if primary source is anal then its an anal orgasam after all if your on all fours cupping her breasts nipples are sensitive would you deny its an anal orgasam then

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Yes. If anything else is fysically stimulated, it’s not an anal orgasm.

So if you take her from behind and your hips hit her buttocks, it’s not an anal orgasm?

Now you’re being rediculous :rofl::rofl:

Splitting hairs, anyone ? :relieved:

Most women experience only clitoral orgasm - an orgasm obtained through stimulation of the clitoris. Fewer women can experience orgasm through vaginal penetration without clitoral stimulation. Therefore, in my understanding, anal orgasm is an orgasm during anal penetration without vaginal penetration and clitoral stimulation. If in the process I not only fuck a woman in the ass, but do any other actions that increase the excitement of my partner (I knead her breasts, kiss her on the neck - my wife is drawn to this, I whisper all sorts of dirty vulgarities in her ear) and she will cum without stimulation of the clitoris, then I believe that she experienced an anal orgasm.
I always thought that I was very lucky with my wife. She has a lot of sexual energy. When she experienced an anal orgasm before my eyes without the help of a vibrator on her clitoris, the thought occurred to me that I had hit the jackpot by getting the woman of my dreams as my wife. I wouldn’t like to think that it wasn’t actually an anal orgasm, since in the process I bit her nipples, pulled her hair and called her a cheap whore (we get very excited about such dirty talk).
In sex, in general, it is very rarely the case that only one type of action is performed. Can I just fuck my wife in the ass without touching her? Without grabbing her breasts, without spanking her beautiful ass well?
Therefore, for me, an anal orgasm, as I wrote above, is precisely an orgasm without stimulation of the clitoris and vaginal penetration. Everything else is quite acceptable. Many women will not be able to come from clitoral stimulation unless they are aroused by foreplay. Does this mean that the woman did not experience a real clitoral orgasm, since I first kissed her lips, neck, hips, nipples?
And one more thing - it seems to me that this discussion has gone beyond the bounds and become a little aggressive. Maybe you shouldn’t insist so zealously on your opinion? For example, it doesn’t matter to me at all that someone considers an anal orgasm to be an orgasm when the clitoris was previously stimulated, but remained untouched during the orgasm itself. So be it. The main thing is that a person gets fabulous pleasure from anal games. And we all gathered here as our little warm community, because we all like it.

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Stop while you’re ahead. I agree with everything you said. This is more about the “rules” for anal orgasm than a lived experience. Mrs Colt has experienced anal orgasm with and without clit stimulation and the orgasm she experiences is the same.

Like men, most women experience a refractory period after a clitoral orgasm. Prior to experiencing the totally different and unique anal orgasm, she only had clitoral orgasms through digital and oral stimulation. It was impossible to touch or lick her clit after orgasm. During anal, she doesn’t experience the refractory period, yet often cums 2 or 3 times… ANALLY!

My wife has anally orgasmed WITH AND WITHOUT clitoral stimulation. So you’re also telling my wife she is not experiencing anal orgasms simply because she touches her clit? I can’t believe the mansplaining about a woman’s anal orgasm.

Sorry dude. Some of us are tired of the way you demean people. And you’re a moderator!

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I don’t want to add more wood to the fire, but I think we first have to define what an orgasm really is.

Then, we have to define what does it mean for an orgasm to occur by different things.

For example, you could orgasm with no stimuli at all (with the power of mind, like in wet dreams), so could that qualify as a “mental” orgasm? Or for example, you could focus on the sensation of certain types of sex (oral, vaginal, anal or even just touching erogenous areas, why not) and you could orgasm through it. Will they count as an x orgasm, or is it still a “mental” orgasm?

Now, what does it mean to orgasm in a certain way? It’s like the debate of milk with coffee or coffee with milk, or half-full and half-empty. Let’s imagine I’m having anal intercourse with a partner, how much anal intercourse shall I have in order to qualify as a anal orgasm? Let’s say I have my penis inside her all the time and I start masturbating her clitoris, in what way will she orgasm? Is the anal penetration the one that triggers? Or the anal penetration just sets her to her climax and is the clitoral stimuli the one that triggers the orgasm? Will it qualify as anal or clitoral?

It’s really interesting and maybe gets out of the scope of this forum into sexology in general.

I’m not trying to set truths or facts, I just wanted to try clarify things a little bit because this filed is a bit ambiguous. And nope, I’m not a sexologist in any way I’m just an undergrad engineer).

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You never before wrote she had orgasms without touching her clit and there’s no reason to become angry. We’re all adults here and I am only bringing in a FACT.

Getting mad over facts is - to say it politely - strange.

I am not making stuff up here, I am stating things which have been explained in just those words. Have you at least looked it up ? Cause I feel like I ‘m telling a believer that there’s no god.